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Continuing Medical Education September, 2001


Self-Assessment Exam

Read the Exam Questions below, and fill in the answers on your printed copy of the Examination Answer Sheet.

Directions: To obtain a certificate of completion for 4 hours of Category 1 CME credit towards the AMA Physician’s Recognition Award, complete the exam by recording the best answer to each self-assessment question and complete the evaluation questions on the Examination Answer Sheet. Mail the answer sheet to Review of Ophthalmology - CME, P.O. Box 488, Canal Street Station, New York, NY 10013. A minimum of 70 percent correct is required to obtain a certificate of completion.

Glaucoma Handbook

A Perspective on Evolving Definitions of Glaucoma
   
Introduction
no questions
   
Three Targets for Glaucoma Therapy
   
1. A benchmark for care of the glaucoma patient is the distribution of intraocular pressures in the general population.
(A) true
(B) false
   
2. Over a span of 80 years, an eye could be expected to lose approximately what percentage of its ganglion cells through attrition?
(A) 15%
(B) 30%
(C) 50%
(D) 80 %
   
3. The relation between cell loss and intraocular pressure is known as:
(A) IOP risk profile
(B) target pressure
(C) threshold pressure
(D) tonographic facility of outflow
   
4.

Target pressure is determined by considerations in addition to the presumed threshold pressure.

(A) true
(B) false
   
5. During sleep, there is:
(A) a 75% reduction in aqueous formation
(B) an increased risk of reduced arterial perfusion
(C) an offset of the ocular hypertensive effects
(D) all of the above
   
6. The method used to measure the pressure-dependency of aqueous humor outflow is:
(A) circadian rhythm
(B) target pressure
(C) threshold pressure
(D) tonographic facility of outflow
   
2001: What's New with Glaucoma Medications
   
7. What parameters are used when evaluating the clinical performance of a glaucoma medication?
(A) ability to lower intraocular pressure
(B) local tolerability
(C) systemic safety
(D) all of the above
   
8. Which new agent approved by the FDA is a decosanoid derived from decosahexanoic acid with a 22-carbon backbone:
(A) bimatoprost
(B) latanoprost
(C) travaprost
(D) unoprostone isopropyl
   
9. Which is the approved new agents is most similar to latanoprost:
(A) bimatoprost
(B) timolol
(C) travaprost
(D) unoprostone isopropyl
   
10. Which new agent does not bind to the prostaglandin FB receptor:
(A) bimatoprost
(B) latanoprost
(C) travaprost
(D) unoprostone isopropyl
   
11. Bimatoprost increases the trabecular outflow as well as the uveoscleral outflow.
(A) true
(B) false
   
12. Which of the following is not a downside to the use of a combination product in the treatment of glaucoma:
(A) appropriate efficacy of the second is adequate to justify its side effects
(B) proving that each component is clinically appropriate
(C) proving that in the combination are the best choices available
(D) proving that patient convenience results in improved compliance
   
Rating the Efficacy and Tolerability of Topical Glaucoma Medications
   
13.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of normal-tension glaucoma:

(A) elevated IOP
(B) loss of retinal ganglion cells
(C) progressive optic neuropathy
(D) vision field loss
   
14. The primary criteria for evaluating the efficacy of glaucoma medications today is the evidence of neuroprotective potential.
(A) true
(B) false
   
15. Adverse events have a high impact on successful glaucoma management because:
(A) it is a progressive disease that requires long-term care
(B) the patient population tends to be older and has other ailments
(C) receptors that work to lower IOP also regulate important pulmonary activities
(D) all of the above
   
16. According to the author, what percentage of patients who initially responded well lose the hypotensive efficacy of beta-blockers over time:
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
   
17. Which alpha-agonist has proven useful as an effective long-term therapy as an adjunctive agent:
(A) apraclonidine
(B) benzalkonium chloride
(C) brimonidine
(D) stablized oxychloro complex
   
18. Brimatoprost caused an average drop in IOP of approximately how much in clinical trials:
(A) 33%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 63%
   
Disease Progression: Combining Medications for Optimal IOP Control
   
19. When the determination is made that more than one medication is needed to reduce IOP to a target level, which of the following factors should be considered:
(A) evaluation of the efficacy of each medication
(B) mechanism of action of each medication
(C) potential neuroprotective effects
(D) all of the above
   
20. What is the suggested minimum target pressure reduction that should be achieved with an adjunctive agent:
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
   
21. If the monotherapeutic agent used to reduce IOP is not working, the addition of an adjunctive agent should be used immediately.
(A) true
(B) false
   
22. Which of the following is true of prostaglandins:
(A) includes dorzolamide and levobunolol
(B) increases uveoscleral outflow without altering aqueous production
(C) reduces aqueous humor formation
(D) should not be used adjunctively with ocular hypotensive agents
   
23. Patients using brimonidine/latanoprost had a mean IOP reduction of:
(A) 18%
(B) 24.2%
(C) 34.5%
(D) 35.2%
   
24.

Which of the following increases aqueous outflow through both the trabecular meshwork pathway and the uveoscleral outflow:

(A) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
(B) postaglandins
(C) prostamides
(D) topical beta-blockers
   
Beyond IOP Control: Neuroprotection as an Antiglaucoma Strategy
   
25. Which of the following is a characteristic of apoptosis:
(A) elicits an inflammatory response
(B) faster than necrosis
(C) is a type of programmed cell death
(D) proceeds in a random fashion
   
26. Which of the following prolongs the life of RGC's:
(A) activation of ceruloplasm
(B) ciliary neurotrophic factors
(C) improved blood flow to optic nerve head
(D) all of the above
   
27. Which drug has been shown to block entry of calcium into cells:
(A) betaxolol
(B) brimonidine
(C) memantine
(D) timolol
   
28. Which drug has been shown for blockade of the NMDA-type glutamate receptor:
(A) betaxolol
(B) brimonidine
(C) memantine
(D) timolol
   
29. Which drug has been shown to achieve pharmacologically active concentrations at the retina:
(A) betaxolol
(B) brimonidine
(C) memantine
(D) timolol
   
30. It is now believed that there may be several causes of the glaucomatous neuropathy common to all types of glaucoma in addition to elevated IOP.
(A) true
(B) false
   
Surgical Approached to Glaucoma
   
31. Surgery may be performed in the treatment of glaucoma when the patient:
(A) is responsive to medications
(B) is able to follow treatment protocol
(C) prefers surgery to medications
(D) all of the above
   
32. The most common glaucoma procedure performed is:
(A) cyclocoagulation
(B) filtration surgery
(C) non-penetrating filtering surgery
(D) tube shunts
   
33.

In laser trabeculoplasty, which laser is the most commonly used:

(A) argon
(B) diode
(C) krypton
(D) tunable dye
   
34. A bleb is created in which procedure:
(A) cyclocoagulation
(B) deep sclerostomy
(C) tube shunts
(D) viscocanulostomy
   
35. Which surgical procedure is usually reserved for patients with end-stage glaucoma who were unsuccessful with other treatments:
(A) cyclophotocoagulation
(B) trabeculoplasty
(C) trabeculectomy
(D) viscocanulostomy
   
36. Surgical procedures usually provide permanent IOP control to glaucoma patients.
(A) true
(B) false


Examination Answer Sheet